The UPSC Assistant Architect exam is a rigorous test of an aspirant’s architectural knowledge and aptitude.
To aid those preparing for this challenging exam, a deep dive into previous year question papers is essential.
Our Solved paper of the 2015 UPSC Assistant Architect paper provides a comprehensive understanding of the exam pattern, the types of questions asked, and the level of depth required in preparation.
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Q1. A screen, usually of louvers, placed on the outside of a building to shield the windows from direct sunlight is:
(a) Drum wall
(b) Solarium
(c) Brise-soleil
(d) Trombe-wall
Answer: (c) Brise-soleil
Explanation: A brise-soleil is an architectural feature that reduces heat gain by deflecting sunlight.
Q2. A vertical diaphragm acting as a thin, deep cantilever beam in transferring lateral loads to the foundation is:
(a) Pneumatic structure
(b) Shell
(c) Membrane
(d) Shear wall
Answer: (d) Shear wall
Explanation: Shear walls provide lateral stability to buildings by transferring lateral loads to the foundation.
Q3. A glass unit consisting of two or more sheets of glass separated by a hermetically sealed air space, to provide thermal insulation and restrict condensation is:
(a) Reflective glass
(b) Heat-absorbing glass
(c) Low emissivity (low-E) glass
(d) Insulating glass
Answer: (d) Insulating glass
Explanation: Insulating glass units (IGUs) enhance thermal insulation and reduce condensation.
Q4. ‘Sky Component’ is an element of:
(a) Earthquake resistant design
(b) Daylight factor
(c) Rainwater harvesting
(d) Thermal performance analysis
Answer: (b) Daylight factor
Explanation: The sky component is part of the daylight factor, measuring the amount of daylight received.
Q5. Architectural design today need not address:
(a) Climatic considerations
(b) Energy efficiency
(c) Stylistic affiliations
(d) User response
Answer: (c) Stylistic affiliations
Explanation: Modern architectural design focuses more on functional aspects than adhering strictly to stylistic affiliations.
Q6. Designing responsive architectural spaces requires consideration given to:
(a) Passive cooling systems
(b) Innovation in structural systems
(c) Smart building systems
(d) User satisfaction
Answer: (d) User satisfaction
Explanation: User satisfaction is essential in designing responsive spaces that meet the needs and comfort of the inhabitants.
Q7. Creating architectural design proposals may not include:
(a) Formulating an area programme
(b) Evolving design alternatives
(c) Incorporating structure and services into finalized proposal
(d) Design detail of interior furniture
Answer: (d) Design detail of interior furniture
Explanation: Architectural design proposals typically focus on the overall structure and layout rather than specific interior furniture details.
Q8. The earliest archeological evidence of urban architecture is from the:
(a) Hoysala period
(b) Buddhist period
(c) Islamic period
(d) Harappan period
Answer: (d) Harappan period
Explanation: The Harappan period, part of the Indus Valley Civilization, provides the earliest evidence of urban architecture.
Q9. A white, powdery deposit that forms on an exposed masonry or concrete surface, caused by leaching and crystallization of soluble salts from within the material is:
(a) Effervescence
(b) Efflorescence
(c) Efficacy
(d) Effluent
Answer: (b) Efflorescence
Explanation: Efflorescence occurs when water brings soluble salts to the surface, leaving a white deposit after evaporation.
Q10. Antonio Gaudi’s Architecture is an example of:
(a) Geometric patterns
(b) Floral patterns
(c) Organic shapes
(d) Linear shapes
Answer: (c) Organic shapes
Explanation: Antonio Gaudi’s architecture is characterized by its use of organic shapes and forms inspired by nature.
Q11. Pablo Picasso was known for his creations in:
(a) Impressionism
(b) Pointillism
(c) Dadaism
(d) Cubism
Answer: (d) Cubism
Explanation: Pablo Picasso was a pioneer of Cubism, a revolutionary art movement that abstracted forms.
Q12. The presence of irregularity in design in which regularity still prevails may be defined as:
(a) Anomaly
(b) Repetition
(c) Radiation
(d) Similarity
Answer: (a) Anomaly
Explanation: An anomaly in design refers to irregularity within an otherwise regular pattern, creating visual interest.
Q13. Consider the following statements:
- Kutch lies in hot and semi-arid climatic zone
- Delhi lies in composite climatic zone
- Delhi lies in warm humid climatic zone
- Kutch lies in hot and dry climatic zone
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 4 only
Answer: (b) 2 and 4
Explanation: Kutch is in a hot and dry climatic zone, and Delhi is in a composite climatic zone.
Q14. Vernacular buildings in hot-dry climate are characterized by:
(a) Elongated plan shapes
(b) Large door and window openings
(c) Compact form with small courtyards
(d) Stilted floors for proper ventilation
Answer: (c) Compact form with small courtyards
Explanation: Vernacular buildings in hot-dry climates often have compact forms and small courtyards to reduce heat gain and maximize shade.
Q15. The components that contribute to Daylight Factor are:
(a) Sky component and internally reflected components
(b) Externally and internally reflected components
(c) Sky component and externally reflected components
(d) Sky component, internally and externally reflected components
Answer: (d) Sky component, internally and externally reflected components
Explanation: The daylight factor comprises the sky component, internally reflected components, and externally reflected components.
Q16. Consider the following statements:
- Flat roofs can reduce heat load in hot-dry climate
- Light weight sloping roofs prevent indoor temperature to increase above outdoor temperature in warm-humid climate
- Sloping roofs allow flow of rainwater in warm-humid climate
- Flat roofs reduce heat load and allow flow of rainwater in composite climate
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Flat roofs reduce heat load in hot-dry climates, lightweight sloping roofs help in warm-humid climates, and sloping roofs facilitate rainwater flow.
Q17. Bhimbetka rock shelters, an archeological site, exhibiting the beginning of South Asian Stone Age are located at:
(a) Aihole in Karnataka State
(b) Raisen district in Madhya Pradesh State
(c) Ellora in Maharashtra State
(d) Perambalur in Tamil Nadu State
Answer: (b) Raisen district in Madhya Pradesh State
Explanation: The Bhimbetka rock shelters are located in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.
Q18. Consider the following statements:
As per Council of Architecture guidelines, the professional conduct of an Architect shall be
- Apply his/her skills to the creative, responsible and economic development of his country
- Not give or take discounts, commissions, gifts and other inducements for the introduction of clients or of work
- Promote the advancement of Architecture, standards of Architectural education, research, training and practice
- Provide professional services of a high standard, to the best of his/her ability
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: All listed guidelines are part of the professional conduct expected from architects.
Q19. The characteristics of both Dravidian style and Nagara style of Temple Architecture are found in temple complex at:
(a) Mahabalipuram
(b) Pattadakal
(c) Konark
(d) Gwalior
Answer: (b) Pattadakal
Explanation: The temple complex at Pattadakal exhibits a blend of Dravidian and Nagara architectural styles.
Q20. Which of the following Publications are by Ar. Charles Jencks?
- Critical Modernism
- Complexity and Contradictions in Architecture
- Learning from Las Vegas
- The story of Post-Modernism
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 4
Explanation: “Critical Modernism” and “The Story of Post-Modernism” are publications by Charles Jencks.
Q21. The plan of which building is not based on the principle of centralized organization?
(a) Hagia Sophia, Istanbul
(b) National Assembly Building Capital Complex, Bangladesh
(c) Unite d’Habitation, Marseilles, France
(d) Villa Capra (Villa Rotunda) at Vicenza
Answer: (c) Unite d’Habitation, Marseilles, France
Explanation: Unite d’Habitation is organized based on a linear concept rather than a centralized one.
Q22. Red House by William Morris belonged to a movement in Architecture, namely
(a) Art Nouveau
(b) Art Deco
(c) Post Modernism
(d) Arts and Crafts Movement
Answer: (d) Arts and Crafts Movement
Explanation: Red House is a notable example of the Arts and Crafts Movement, which emphasized traditional craftsmanship.
Q23. The design of a public building must be judged among other things by its capacity to
(a) Stand apart from the rest of the buildings on the street
(b) Connect seamlessly to the street it is on
(c) Be easily cordoned off from the public
(d) Have clearly demarcated entries for high officials
Answer: (b) Connect seamlessly to the street it is on
Explanation: Public buildings should integrate well with their surroundings and be accessible to the public.
Q24. Consider the following statements: Urban Heat Island is a phenomenon caused
- by absorption of a high percentage of radiation by the built mass in urban areas
- by high density and high rise constructions
- in low rise built-up areas
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Urban Heat Islands are typically caused by high-density construction and absorption of radiation by urban materials.
Q25. Consider the following statements:
- Art Nouveau advocates nature as a source of all good design
- William Morris was the main exponent of the Art Nouveau Movement
- Art Nouveau was expressed in fabrics first and was later on used in architecture and furniture
- Art Nouveau objected to borrowing of ideas from the past or other cultures
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation: William Morris was a key figure in the Arts and Crafts Movement, not Art Nouveau.
Q26. Consider the following statements: Fluttering echo is formed in a room in which
- Opposite walls or floor and ceiling are parallel to each other acoustically
- Flat surfaces reflect the acoustic wave to a large extent
- Time between the end of one and the beginning of the next reflected wave is longer than 50 ms
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3
Explanation: Fluttering echoes occur due to parallel surfaces reflecting sound waves and sufficient time between reflections.
Q27. Float glass is manufactured by
(a) Drawing the molten glass from a furnace
(b) Rolling molten glass into a plate and grinding and polishing it after cooling
(c) Pouring molten glass onto a surface of molten tin and allowing it to cool slowly
(d) Embedding a square or diamond mesh within the flat or patterned glass
Answer: (c) Pouring molten glass onto a surface of molten tin and allowing it to cool slowly
Explanation: Float glass is made by floating molten glass on molten tin, creating a smooth surface.
Q28. Shells are thin, curved, plate structures constructed of reinforced concrete in which
(a) The structure and membrane are one
(b) The structure and membrane are separated
(c) There is only membrane and no structure
(d) There is only structure and no membrane
Answer: (a) The structure and membrane are one
Explanation: In shell structures, the membrane and the structure are integrated.
Q29. Magenta is a color derived from one of the following systems of colors:
(a) Subtractive primary colors
(b) Additive primary colors
(c) Radiating primary colors
(d) Selective primary colors
Answer: (a) Subtractive primary colors
Explanation: Magenta is one of the subtractive primary colors, used in color printing.
Q30. Design quality indicators for buildings may not include
(a) Functionality
(b) Star value of architect
(c) Place-making quality
(d) Structural stability
Answer: (b) Star value of architect
Explanation: Design quality should be based on functionality, place-making, and stability, not the fame of the architect.
Q31. Zero tolerance in design and production is possible today because of
(a) Availability of energy-audit tools
(b) Availability of highly accurate digital metrology tools
(c) Possibility of calculating quantities to many places of decimal
(d) Intense professionalism in the field
Answer: (b) Availability of highly accurate digital metrology tools
Explanation: Precise digital tools enable zero tolerance in design and production.
Q32. A conic section formed by the intersection of a right circular cone with a plane that cuts through both the axis and the surface of the cone is
(a) Parabola
(b) Ellipse
(c) Hyperbola
(d) Spheroid
Answer: (c) Hyperbola
Explanation: A hyperbola is formed when a plane intersects both halves of a double cone.
Q33. In an escalator
(a) The left handrail moves whilst the right is stationary
(b) The right handrail moves whilst the left is stationary
(c) Both handrails are moving
(d) Both handrails are stationary
Answer: (c) Both handrails are moving
Explanation: Both handrails of an escalator move in sync with the steps.
Q34. Pointed Arch, Sexpartite vaulting and flying buttresses were the techniques to span the huge spaces and to handle the thrust in
(a) Gothic architecture
(b) Byzantine architecture
(c) Roman architecture
(d) Greek architecture
Answer: (a) Gothic architecture
Explanation: These techniques are hallmarks of Gothic architecture, allowing for large windows and high ceilings.
Q35. Villa Savoye at Poissy, France is a design of internationally famed Architect Le Corbusier’s philosophy of
(a) Five points of Architecture
(b) Sectoral Planning
(c) Brutalism
(d) Surrealism
Answer: (a) Five points of Architecture
Explanation: Villa Savoye exemplifies Le Corbusier’s five points, including pilotis, free plan, free facade, horizontal windows, and roof gardens.
Q36. Fatehpur Sikri Palace Complex of Akbar is a good example for
(a) Clustered organization of space
(b) Radial organization of space
(c) Linear organization of space
(d) Centralized organization of space
Answer: (a) Clustered organization of space
Explanation: The layout of Fatehpur Sikri is characterized by a clustered arrangement of buildings.
Q37. For which one of the following structures, Marble and Sandstone were used in combination for the first time in an Islamic Architecture?
(a) Qutub Minar
(b) Alai Darwaza
(c) Taj Mahal
(d) Humayun’s Tomb
Answer: (d) Humayun’s Tomb
Explanation: Humayun’s Tomb is notable for its combination of marble and sandstone in its construction.
Q38. Which among the following is not a housing project done by Architect B V Doshi?
(a) Aranya Community Housing, Indore
(b) Township of Reliance Industries Ltd, Hazira
(c) HUDCO housing, Jodhpur
(d) Township of Gujarat State Fertilizer Corporation, Baroda
Answer: (b) Township of Reliance Industries Ltd, Hazira
Explanation: B.V. Doshi did not design the Township of Reliance Industries Ltd in Hazira.
Q39. Halebid and Belur temples popularly known as star-shaped temples were carved out of which of the following materials?
(a) Chloritic Schist
(b) Sandstone
(c) Marble
(d) Granite
Answer: (a) Chloritic Schist
Explanation: The star-shaped temples at Halebid and Belur were carved out of Chloritic Schist, also known as soapstone.
Q40. Extensive use of built-in furniture, use of brick-on edge instead of RCC lintel, corbelled arches, filler slabs and brick jalis in the buildings are characteristic features of the architecture of
(a) Charles Correa
(b) Uttam Jain
(c) Laurie Baker
(d) B V Doshi
Answer: (c) Laurie Baker
Explanation: Laurie Baker’s architecture is known for its cost-effective, sustainable design, featuring built-in furniture and use of local materials.
Q41. Which of the following are the characteristics of colonial style of architecture?
(a) Symmetry
(b) A long, rectangular floor plan
(c) A staircase at the back of the house
(d) Rooms that connect to each other rather than to central hall
Answer: (a) Symmetry
Explanation: Colonial architecture is known for its symmetrical design and central hallway with rooms leading off it.
Q42. Human beings have binocular vision that covers about
(a) 80°
(b) 100°
(c) 140°
(d) 170°
Answer: (c) 140°
Explanation: Human binocular vision covers approximately 140°, which allows for depth perception.
Q43. Which building is regarded as the first ‘modern’ building built on Indian soil?
(a) High Court, Chandigarh
(b) Indian Institute of Technology, New Delhi
(c) Golkonde, Pondicherry
(d) Writers’ Building, Kolkata
Answer: (c) Golkonde, Pondicherry
Explanation: Golkonde, designed by Antonin Raymond, is considered the first modernist building in India.
Q44. The primary factors for perception of depth are
(a) Convergence, Accommodation and Disparity due to binocular parallax
(b) Cognition, Gestalt and Mass
(c) Density, Volume and Length
(d) Density, Volume and Height
Answer: (a) Convergence, Accommodation and Disparity due to binocular parallax
Explanation: Depth perception is primarily influenced by convergence of the eyes, accommodation of the lens, and binocular disparity.
Q45. A square standing on its edge appears
(a) Smaller than the one lying on its side
(b) Distorted than the one lying on its side
(c) Bigger than the one lying on its side
(d) Smaller and distorted than the one lying on its side
Answer: (d) Smaller and distorted than the one lying on its side
Explanation: A square standing on its edge appears smaller and distorted due to perspective.
Q46. An Art-Deco Style of Architecture is commonly found in
(a) Hyderabad and Bangalore
(b) Mumbai and Kolkata
(c) Ahmedabad and Chandigarh
(d) Shimla and Darjeeling
Answer: (b) Mumbai and Kolkata
Explanation: Mumbai and Kolkata have notable examples of Art-Deco architecture.
Q47. Which of the following building was not designed by Richard Rogers?
(a) Pompidou Centre, Paris
(b) Lloyds Bank Building, London
(c) Guggenheim Museum, Bilbao
(d) Millennium Dome, Greenwich
Answer: (c) Guggenheim Museum, Bilbao
Explanation: The Guggenheim Museum in Bilbao was designed by Frank Gehry, not Richard Rogers.
Q48. The sensitivity to the slightest stimulus differences is psychologically termed as
(a) Perpetual change
(b) Sensory modulation
(c) Pregnance of the corresponding perception
(d) Perceptual constancy
Answer: (d) Perceptual constancy
Explanation: Perceptual constancy refers to the brain’s ability to maintain a perception of an object despite changes in sensory input.
Q49. The external circumstances that can influence the mode of appearance of colors are
(a) Light, Texture and Position
(b) Form proportion, Scale and Mass
(c) Texture, Form Gestalt and Position in the field
(d) Form proportion, Scale and Texture
Answer: (a) Light, Texture and Position
Explanation: The appearance of colors can be affected by the lighting, texture of surfaces, and the position of the observer.
Q50. According to Munsell, three color attributes are
(a) Light, Dark and Neutral
(b) Hue, Value and Chroma
(c) Warm, Cold and Temperate
(d) Tone, Shade and Tint
Answer: (b) Hue, Value and Chroma
Explanation: Munsell’s color system is based on three attributes: hue (color), value (lightness), and chroma (saturation).
Q51. Periodic repetition of similar, but not identical movements is called
(a) Balance
(b) Continuity
(c) Rhythm
(d) Similarity
Answer: (c) Rhythm
Explanation: Rhythm in architecture refers to the repetition of elements in a structured but varied manner.
Q52. In which city are PETRONAS Towers situated?
(a) New York
(b) Tokyo
(c) Kuala Lumpur
(d) Dubai
Answer: (c) Kuala Lumpur
Explanation: The PETRONAS Towers are located in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
Q53. SITE’s philosophy is based on the
(a) Ecological content of architecture
(b) Sociological and psychological content of architecture
(c) Environment and economical content of architecture
(d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: SITE (Sculpture in the Environment) incorporates ecological, sociological, psychological, environmental, and economic aspects in their architectural philosophy.
Q54. Charles Jencks is associated with
(a) Radical Eclecticism
(b) Romanticism
(c) Rationalism
(d) Surrealistic Eclecticism
Answer: (a) Radical Eclecticism
Explanation: Charles Jencks is known for his association with Postmodern architecture and Radical Eclecticism.
Q55. We regard Human society as a vital process, a continuous development from Atom to Nebula, is the key declaration of
(a) Metabolism
(b) Morpho-typology
(c) Archigram
(d) Rationalist
Answer: (a) Metabolism
Explanation: Metabolism is a post-war Japanese architectural movement that sees human society as a continuously evolving process.
Q56. The street and the square are the only and necessary models for the reconstruction of a
(a) Public realm
(b) Urban area
(c) Town
(d) District
Answer: (a) Public realm
Explanation: Streets and squares are fundamental elements for designing and reconstructing public spaces in urban planning.
Q57. The condition of observed connection of senses is called
(a) Kinesthetics
(b) Synesthesia
(c) Synthesis
(d) Anesthetics
Answer: (b) Synesthesia
Explanation: Synesthesia is a condition where one sense is simultaneously perceived as if by one or more additional senses.
Q58. Regional surveys are divided into three broad classes dealing with
(a) Psychological factors, Physical-economic factors and Socio-economic factors
(b) Physiological factors, Physical-economic factors and Socio-economic factors
(c) Biological factors, Physical-economic factors and Socio-economic factors
(d) Physical factors, Physical-economic factors and Socio-economic factors
Answer: (d) Physical factors, Physical-economic factors and Socio-economic factors
Explanation: Regional surveys typically address physical aspects, economic conditions, and social factors.
Q59. Occupancy rates are arrived by
(a) Area/density
(b) Population density/area
(c) Area/accommodation density
(d) Population density/accommodation density
Answer: (d) Population density/accommodation density
Explanation: Occupancy rates are calculated by dividing the population density by the accommodation density.
Q60. Which of the following is not a major land use zone in a regional plan?
(a) Industrial zone
(b) Agricultural zone
(c) Urbanizable zone
(d) Commercial zone
Answer: (d) Commercial zone
Explanation: Major land use zones typically include industrial, agricultural, and urbanizable areas. Commercial zones are more specific and fall within urban planning.
Q61. Class ‘B’ fire involves
(a) Electrical equipment
(b) Flammable gases
(c) Petroleum products
(d) Combustible solids of organic nature
Answer: (c) Petroleum products
Explanation: Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as petroleum products, oils, and greases.
Q62. To withstand earthquake loading, the weakest ductile link in an RCC frame building should be
(a) Column
(b) Beam
(c) Floor slab
(d) Foundation
Answer: (b) Beam
Explanation: In earthquake-resistant design, beams are designed to be the ductile element to prevent sudden failure, while columns are made stronger to avoid collapse.
Q63. The layout of Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa cities was based on which particular system of planning?
(a) Grid iron pattern
(b) Sectoral pattern
(c) Irregular street pattern
(d) Radial street pattern
Answer: (a) Grid iron pattern
Explanation: The cities of Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa were planned using a grid iron pattern with streets laid out in a systematic and orderly fashion.
Q64. The JNNURM programme requires the participating cities to develop
(a) Annual Plan
(b) Zonal Plan
(c) City Development Plan
(d) Local Area Plan
Answer: (c) City Development Plan
Explanation: The Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) requires cities to create City Development Plans (CDPs) to outline their development goals and strategies.
Q65. Most of the earth’s mass in the mantle is composed of
(a) Iron, Magnesium, Aluminium, Silica and Oxygen
(b) Potassium, Aluminium and Oxygen
(c) Sand, Water and Stone
(d) Iron and Silica
Answer: (a) Iron, Magnesium, Aluminium, Silica and Oxygen
Explanation: The Earth’s mantle is primarily composed of silicate minerals rich in iron, magnesium, aluminium, silica, and oxygen.
Q66. Carcassonne, France is an example of a particular street system namely
(a) Organic street system
(b) Grid iron street system
(c) Concentric and Radial Street system
(d) Irregular Medieval system
Answer: (d) Irregular Medieval system
Explanation: Carcassonne, with its medieval fortifications and winding, irregular streets, is an example of an irregular medieval street system.
Q67. The surface of the earth consists of
(a) 7 major tectonic plates
(b) 5 major tectonic plates
(c) 4 major tectonic plates
(d) 3 major tectonic plates
Answer: (a) 7 major tectonic plates
Explanation: The Earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major tectonic plates.
Q68. What is the theory of human settlements put forth by Doxiodis called?
(a) Imagibility
(b) Ekistics
(c) Neo-urbanism
(d) Acropolis
Answer: (b) Ekistics
Explanation: Ekistics is the science of human settlements, developed by the Greek architect and city planner Constantinos Doxiadis.
Q69. Hypocentre is
(a) The location near the fault
(b) The point where the fault first slips or rock breaks
(c) The place of concentration
(d) The centre away from the fault
Answer: (b) The point where the fault first slips or rock breaks
Explanation: The hypocentre is the point within the Earth where an earthquake rupture starts.
Q70. Three distinct functional parts of most towns are
(a) Shopping centre, Industrial area and Residential area
(b) Plaza, Industrial area and Residential area
(c) Central park, Industrial area and Residential area
(d) Town centre, Industrial area and Residential area
Answer: (d) Town centre, Industrial area and Residential area
Explanation: Most towns are functionally divided into a town center (commercial and administrative), industrial areas, and residential areas.
Q71. The term ‘Liquidated damages’ is concerned with
(a) Bad workmanship
(b) Faulty works
(c) Inferior quality of material
(d) Delay in completion of project
Answer: (d) Delay in completion of project
Explanation: Liquidated damages are predetermined damages agreed upon in a contract, typically related to delays in project completion.
Q72. In arbitration, two arbitrators appoint the third arbitrator who is known as
(a) Chief Arbitrator
(b) Sole Arbitrator
(c) Single Arbitrator
(d) Umpire
Answer: (d) Umpire
Explanation: In arbitration, if two arbitrators cannot agree, they appoint a third arbitrator known as an umpire to make the final decision.
Q73. The word NTFP stands for
(a) Nuts Timber Fruit Products
(b) Non Timber Fire Products
(c) Nuts Timber Fibre products
(d) Non Timber Forest Products
Answer: (d) Non Timber Forest Products
Explanation: NTFP stands for Non Timber Forest Products, which include resources like fruits, nuts, and other products from forests that do not require logging.
Q74. The Act which provides for compulsory acquisition of land or property for a public purpose is
(a) Consumer Act
(b) Architects Act 1972
(c) The Land Acquisition Act 1894
(d) Easement Act
Answer: (c) The Land Acquisition Act 1894
Explanation: The Land Acquisition Act of 1894 provides the legal framework for the compulsory acquisition of land for public purposes in India.
Q75. The method of valuation used commonly for single-use commercial properties like marriage halls, cinema theatres, etc., is
(a) Profit capitalization method (Profit method of valuation)
(b) Rent capitalization method (Rent method of valuation)
(c) Development potential method (Development method of valuation)
(d) Land and building method
Answer: (a) Profit capitalization method (Profit method of valuation)
Explanation: The profit capitalization method is commonly used for valuing single-use commercial properties like marriage halls and cinema theatres, based on the profits they generate.
Q76. The sum provided for work or services to be executed by a nominated subcontractor or for materials/goods to be obtained from a nominated supplier is called
(a) Provisional cost sum
(b) Prime cost sum
(c) Bill of quantities
(d) Final sum
Answer: (b) Prime cost sum
Explanation: A prime cost sum is an allowance in the contract sum for work or services to be executed by a nominated subcontractor or for materials/goods to be obtained from a nominated supplier.
Q77. Which of the following is a statutory professional body in Architecture as passed by Parliamentary Act?
(a) Indian Institute of Architects
(b) Council of Architecture
(c) Institute of Indian Interior Designers
(d) Institution of Engineers
Answer: (b) Council of Architecture
Explanation: The Council of Architecture is a statutory body constituted by the Government of India under the Architects Act, 1972.
Q78. Consider the following statements: A building contract is
- An agreement under which a contractor undertakes the execution of construction work for certain payment from an employer
- It is an offer in writing for executing certain specified work
- It is a decision given by the architect after careful investigation of documents
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: A building contract is an agreement where a contractor undertakes the execution of construction work for a specified payment from the employer.
Q79. The term ‘PPP’ in the field of architecture and urban development commonly refers to
(a) Public Private Partnership
(b) Picture Promote Produce
(c) Public Private Project
(d) Painting Plumbing Perspectives
Answer: (a) Public Private Partnership
Explanation: PPP stands for Public Private Partnership, a cooperative arrangement between public and private sectors for the provision of public services or infrastructure.
Q80. Vegetative cover, particle size, slope, intensity of precipitation and wind velocity, all affect a soil’s
(a) Fertility
(b) Moisture retention
(c) Erodibility
(d) Bearing capacity
Answer: (c) Erodibility
Explanation: These factors influence the susceptibility of soil to erosion.
Q81. In residential buildings dados can be provided in
(a) Toilets
(b) Kitchens
(c) Staircases
(d) Any space where there is need to protect the wall surface
Answer: (d) Any space where there is need to protect the wall surface
Explanation: Dados are protective wall coverings often used in areas prone to damage or moisture, such as toilets, kitchens, and staircases.
Q82. The Garden designs based on spiritual concepts are
(a) Japanese Garden
(b) Mughal Garden
(c) Spanish Garden
(d) English Garden
Answer: (a) Japanese Garden
Explanation: Japanese gardens are designed based on spiritual and philosophical concepts, often incorporating elements like water, stones, and plants to create a meditative environment.
Q83. According to Christian Norberg-Schulz, to become a true form the street has to possess
(a) Harmony
(b) Figural character
(c) Consistent character
(d) Balance
Answer: (b) Figural character
Explanation: Christian Norberg-Schulz emphasizes that streets should possess a figural character, meaning they should have a clear, distinct form that contributes to the overall urban fabric.
Q84. Plumeria Alba belongs to which of the following categories of softscape?
(a) Tree
(b) Herb
(c) Grass
(d) Ground cover
Answer: (a) Tree
Explanation: Plumeria Alba, also known as the white frangipani, is a type of flowering tree.
Q85. Which of the following Indian trees is ‘Evergreen’?
(a) Gulmohar
(b) Bahawa
(c) Subabhul
(d) Mango
Answer: (d) Mango
Explanation: Mango trees are evergreen, meaning they retain their leaves throughout the year.
Q86. Which pattern of layout is most commonly seen in Mughal Gardens?
(a) Char bagh
(b) Chashme Shahi
(c) Jor bagh
(d) Firdausi
Answer: (a) Char bagh
Explanation: The Char bagh layout, which is a Persian-style garden layout divided into four quadrants, is commonly seen in Mughal gardens.
Q87. The art of clipping plants and trimming foliage to develop and maintain clearly defined shapes is called
(a) Art Nouveau
(b) Installations
(c) Scissor’s art
(d) Topiary
Answer: (d) Topiary
Explanation: Topiary is the horticultural practice of clipping and trimming plants into clearly defined shapes.
Q88. X-cracking will occur in the pier of masonry wall because
(a) Vertical reinforcement is not provided
(b) Lintel is not provided properly
(c) Masonry wall is weak in tension
(d) Masonry piers are slender
Answer: (a) Vertical reinforcement is not provided
Explanation: X-cracking in masonry piers often occurs due to the absence of vertical reinforcement, making the pier unable to withstand tensile stresses.
Q89. Which of the following characteristics should a structure possess to be earthquake responsive?
(a) Permeability
(b) Ductility
(c) Mobility
(d) Stability
Answer: (b) Ductility
Explanation: A structure needs to possess ductility to be earthquake responsive, allowing it to absorb and dissipate energy without sudden failure.
Q90. Liquefaction is a case where the soil will have
(a) Very little strength and will behave badly
(b) High strength and will behave like a liquid
(c) Very high strength and resist earthquake
(d) Very little strength and will behave more like a liquid than a solid
Answer: (d) Very little strength and will behave more like a liquid than a solid
Explanation: During liquefaction, saturated soil temporarily loses strength and stiffness and behaves like a liquid.
Q91. Epicentre is
(a) The point away from the fault
(b) 1.5 metres above the fault
(c) The point on the earth’s surface directly above the focus
(d) 6 metres above the fault
Answer: (c) The point on the earth’s surface directly above the focus
Explanation: The epicenter is the point on the Earth’s surface directly above where an earthquake originates.
Q92. Strike slip fault is a condition when
(a) The rocks on either side of fault slide past each other
(b) All rocks slide past each other
(c) The rock slips
(d) The center part of the rock slips
Answer: (a) The rocks on either side of fault slide past each other
Explanation: In a strike-slip fault, the rocks on either side of the fault move horizontally past each other.
Q93. Intensity of Earthquake is measured by MSK scale and it refers to
(a) Mendel Schumacher-Kohn
(b) Medvedev Sponheuer-Karnik
(c) Meter Second Kilo
(d) Michael Stone Korus
Answer: (b) Medvedev Sponheuer-Karnik
Explanation: The MSK scale stands for Medvedev-Sponheuer-Karnik, which measures the intensity of an earthquake based on observed effects.
Q94. Vibroflotation is a method adopted to reduce
(a) S-Waves
(b) P-Waves
(c) Liquefaction hazards
(d) Ground shaking
Answer: (c) Liquefaction hazards
Explanation: Vibroflotation is a ground improvement technique used to increase the density of soil and reduce the risk of liquefaction.
Q95. In seismic evaluation, RVS refers to
(a) Reverse Value System
(b) Repeat Value Set
(c) Rapid Visual Screening
(d) Reference Vent System
Answer: (c) Rapid Visual Screening
Explanation: Rapid Visual Screening (RVS) is a quick assessment method used to evaluate the seismic vulnerability of buildings.
Q96. The amount of ground displacement in an earthquake is called the
(a) Epicenter
(b) Dip
(c) Slip
(d) Focus
Answer: (c) Slip
Explanation: The slip is the amount of displacement or movement along a fault during an earthquake.
Q97. Which of the following is one of the five elements that form ‘Image of a City’?
(a) Nodes
(b) Malls
(c) Metro rail
(d) Trees
Answer: (a) Nodes
Explanation: According to Kevin Lynch’s “The Image of the City,” nodes are one of the five key elements that help form the mental image of a city.
Q98. The term ‘pediment’ refers to
(a) Roof of the building in Greek architecture
(b) A decorative element, placed above horizontal structures associated with Classical European Architecture
(c) A large public space enclosed by classical buildings
(d) A structural element to distribute dead load of a building to its foundation
Answer: (b) A decorative element, placed above horizontal structures associated with Classical European Architecture
Explanation: A pediment is a triangular decorative element placed above the horizontal structure of a building, commonly found in Classical European architecture.
Q99. Seismic Zone-V refers to
(a) Less occurrence of Earthquake
(b) More frequent and large size Earthquake occurrence
(c) Insignificant size Earthquake
(d) Minor Earthquake
Answer: (b) More frequent and large size Earthquake occurrence
Explanation: Seismic Zone-V is classified as a high seismic risk area with more frequent and larger magnitude earthquakes.
Q100. The term ‘Vista’ in Architecture and Urban Design refers to
(a) A line of vision, contained by buildings of landscaping to a building or other feature which terminates the view
(b) A large public space surrounded by imposing buildings
(c) Visual connection from one landmark to another
(d) Variation in the plane of a building wall, often used to provide visual interest
Answer: (a) A line of vision, contained by buildings or landscaping to a building or other feature which terminates the view
Explanation: A vista in architecture and urban design refers to a directed line of sight that leads the eye towards a focal point or terminus, often framed by buildings or landscaping.
Q101. The concept EPCOT refers to
(a) Experimental prototype community of tomorrow
(b) Experienced people of community of today
(c) Elite people’s community of tomorrow
(d) Elaborate population in community of tomorrow
Answer: (a) Experimental prototype community of tomorrow
Explanation: EPCOT, conceived by Walt Disney, stands for Experimental Prototype Community of Tomorrow, a utopian city of the future.
Q102. Which of the following factors are associated with the behavior of sand mass during Earthquake to cause liquefaction?
- Number of stress cycles
- The frequency and amplitude of vibration of waves generated by an earthquake
- Characteristics of sand
- Relative density
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: All listed factors contribute to the behavior of sand mass during an earthquake, affecting the likelihood of liquefaction.
Q103. Arches are constructed with radiating wedge shaped blocks of stones or bricks called
(a) Voussoirs
(b) Springers
(c) Abutment
(d) Soffit
Answer: (a) Voussoirs
Explanation: Voussoirs are the wedge-shaped blocks that form the arch.
Q104. Which of the following measures reduce land take impact?
(a) Minimize building footprint
(b) Increase building footprint
(c) Increase roof surface area
(d) Increase wall area
Answer: (a) Minimize building footprint
Explanation: Minimizing the building footprint reduces the amount of land required for construction, thereby lessening land take impact.
Q105. Representative of an Architect on site, referred to as ‘eyes and ears’ of an Architect, reporting to Architect but paid by the owner is called
(a) Site Supervisor
(b) Clerk of Works
(c) Project Management Consultant
(d) Superintending Engineer
Answer: (b) Clerk of Works
Explanation: The Clerk of Works is responsible for ensuring construction quality and adherence to design specifications, acting as the eyes and ears of the architect on site.
Q106. Middle management level training in construction should cater for
(a) Better financial management
(b) Account management and computer skills
(c) First aid methods
(d) Improving technical skills
Answer: (d) Improving technical skills
Explanation: Middle management training should focus on improving technical skills relevant to the construction industry.
Q107. At a work site, statistical quality control of concrete means
(a) To estimate failures
(b) Applying the theory of probability to sample testing
(c) Reduction in wastage costs
(d) Removal of defects
Answer: (b) Applying the theory of probability to sample testing
Explanation: Statistical quality control involves using probability and statistics to monitor and control concrete quality through sample testing.
Q108. Floor Area Ratio (FAR) is defined as
(a) The quotient obtained by dividing the total covered area on all floors by the area of the plot
(b) The quotient obtained by dividing the total covered area on ground floor by area of the plot
(c) The quotient obtained by dividing the total covered area on all floors by covered area on ground floor
(d) Ratio between covered area and open area
Answer: (a) The quotient obtained by dividing the total covered area on all floors by the area of the plot
Explanation: FAR is a measure of the building’s total floor area relative to the size of its plot.
Q109. Which technique of project network analysis is best suited for planning and controlling projects involving uncertainties
(a) Critical Path Method
(b) Project Evaluation and Review Technique
(c) Precedence Network Analysis
(d) Bar chart method
Answer: (b) Project Evaluation and Review Technique
Explanation: PERT is best suited for projects with uncertainties as it incorporates probabilistic time estimates for activity durations.
Q110. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Critical path in the network’:
- It is the longest path
- It is the path of critical activities
- It is the most sensitive path
- It is the shortest path
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The critical path is the longest path through a project network, consisting of critical activities and being the most sensitive to delays.
Q111. The technique for establishing and maintaining priority among various jobs of a project is known as
(a) Even flow scheduling technique
(b) Critical ratio scheduling
(c) Slotting technique for scheduling
(d) Short interval scheduling
Answer: (b) Critical ratio scheduling
Explanation: Critical ratio scheduling helps prioritize tasks based on their urgency and importance, aiding in effective project management.
Q112. Sustainable planning considers environmental, social, and
(a) Technological impacts of a building
(b) Economic impacts of a building
(c) Political impacts of a building
(d) Biological impacts of a building
Answer: (b) Economic impacts of a building
Explanation: Sustainable planning considers the environmental, social, and economic impacts of buildings to ensure long-term viability and resilience.
Q113. The site inscribed as World Heritage sites in India in 2013 is
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Hill forts of Rajasthan
(c) Mountain range in Nilgiris
(d) Mountain railways Kalka-Shimla
Answer: (a) Western Ghats
Explanation: The Western Ghats were inscribed as a World Heritage site in 2013 due to their rich biodiversity and ecological significance.
Q114. What does ‘BOCA’ stand for in the NBC?
(a) Building Operation Construction Activity
(b) Built Operation Construction Amenities
(c) Building Operation Construction Administration
(d) Building Official and Code Administration
Answer: (d) Building Official and Code Administration
Explanation: BOCA stands for Building Officials and Code Administrators, a legacy organization involved in building code development.
Q115. The best and maximum level of sound insulation is given by
(a) Rigid homogeneous type of wall construction
(b) Partition walls of porous materials
(c) Cavity wall construction
(d) Double wall partition type of wall construction
Answer: (d) Double wall partition type of wall construction
Explanation: Double wall partition type of wall construction provides the best sound insulation due to the air gap and additional layers.
Q116. The lamps used for flood lighting and sports lighting is
(a) Metal Halide lamps
(b) Mercury lamps
(c) High pressure sodium lamps
(d) Fluorescent lamps
Answer: (a) Metal Halide lamps
Explanation: Metal Halide lamps are commonly used for flood lighting and sports lighting due to their high intensity and good color rendering.
Q117. The valve which allows the flow of liquid or gas in one direction only is called
(a) Reflux valve
(b) Sluice valve
(c) Relief valve
(d) Scour valve
Answer: (a) Reflux valve
Explanation: A reflux valve, also known as a check valve, allows fluid to flow in only one direction, preventing backflow.
Q118. As per the National Building Code, ramps when provided for pedestrian access between floors shall have a slope of
(a) 1:10
(b) 1:20
(c) 1:8
(d) 1:15
Answer: (b) 1:20
Explanation: The National Building Code specifies a maximum slope of 1:20 for pedestrian ramps to ensure accessibility.
Q119. Which of the following is NOT part of National Building Code, 2005?
(a) Structural design
(b) Building services
(c) Sustainable design
(d) Plumbing services
Answer: (c) Sustainable design
Explanation: While the National Building Code covers structural design, building services, and plumbing services, sustainable design is not specifically a part of the NBC 2005.
Q120. Consider the following statements:
- Less is bore
- Less is more
- Form follows function
- Ornamentation is crime
Which of these statements describes modernism?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Modernism is characterized by statements like “Less is more,” “Form follows function,” and “Ornamentation is crime,” emphasizing simplicity and functionality over decoration.