The UPSC Deputy Architect exam is a rigorous test of an aspirant’s architectural knowledge and aptitude.
To aid those preparing for this challenging exam, a deep dive into previous year question papers is essential.
Our Solved paper of the UPSC Deputy Architect paper provides a comprehensive understanding of the exam pattern, the types of questions asked, and the level of depth required in preparation.
Check Others UPSC Solved Questions Papers Also-
UPSC CPWD Assistant Architect 2021: Question Paper 1 Solved
UPSC CPWD Assistant Architect 2015: Question Paper 2 Solved
UPSC CPWD Assistant Architect 2016: Question Paper 3 Solved
UPSC Deputy Architect (MES) 2018: Question Paper Solved
Q: A safety nosing in a staircase is
(A) the least thickness of a stanchion
(B) a non-slip surface flush with the riser surface
(C) a non-slip surface flush with the tread surface
(D) the least thickness of a reinforced concrete slab
Answer: (C) a non-slip surface flush with the tread surface
Explanation: Safety nosing provides a non-slip edge to the tread of stairs, enhancing safety.
Q: Sumerian units of measurement were based on
(A) parts of an ancient buildings
(B) parts of animals’ body
(C) parts of trees and plants
(D) parts of the human body
Answer: (D) parts of the human body
Explanation: Sumerians used measurements based on parts of the human body, such as the cubit.
Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT fit for ambient luminescence in the context of interior lighting?
(A) It is shadowless
(B) It maximizes form and bulk
(C) It reduces the importance of things and people
(D) It fills people with a sense of freedom of space
Answer: (B) It maximizes form and bulk
Explanation: Ambient luminescence reduces shadows and creates a sense of spaciousness, not emphasizing form and bulk.
Q: Which one of the following enhances the perception of depth by emphasizing the natural texture and sculpted relief of the surface?
(A) Diffuse light
(B) Grazing light
(C) Contrast light
(D) Sparkle light
Answer: (B) Grazing light
Explanation: Grazing light, which shines at a sharp angle, emphasizes textures and relief.
Q: Consider the following statements regarding different types of design:
- Semi-circular arched opening was the hallmark of the Romanesque style of Architecture.
- Gothic style of Architecture is characterized by the use of pointed arch, groined vault and tracery.
- The Cathedral of Notre-Dame is a prime example of Renaissance Architecture.
- The emphasis during the Rococo period was on interior application rather than the exterior façade.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 4 accurately describe Romanesque, Gothic, and Rococo architecture, respectively. Statement 3 is incorrect as Notre-Dame is a prime example of Gothic Architecture.
Q: The art of inserting a part of one plant into another plant by exposing the actively growing tissue so that they will unite and continue their growth as one plant is called:
(A) Budding
(B) Stooling
(C) Layering
(D) Grafting
Answer: (D) Grafting
Explanation: Grafting involves joining parts of two plants so they grow as one.
Q: Albert Atterberg, a Swedish soil scientist, defined the boundaries between different consistency states for soil that are referred to as the Atterberg limits. Of which, what comprises the plastic limit?
(A) Boundary between the plastic and liquid states
(B) Boundary between the semisolid and solid states
(C) Boundary between the plastic and semisolid states
(D) Boundary between the liquid and semisolid states
Answer: (C) Boundary between the plastic and semisolid states
Explanation: The plastic limit is the moisture content at which soil transitions from a plastic to a semi-solid state.
Q: As far back as 1887, the Gazetteer of Delhi described Delhi district as having 4 ‘natural divisions’, which are still useful descriptive labels for Delhi microhabitats of which the sandy riverain of the Yamuna is called:
(A) khadar
(B) bangar
(C) kohi
(D) dabar
Answer: (A) khadar
Explanation: Khadar refers to the newer, sandy alluvial soil found along the Yamuna.
Q: ‘Solum’ is a term which describes one of the following elements of landscape:
(A) Soil
(B) Water
(C) Trees
(D) Shrubs
Answer: (A) Soil
Explanation: Solum refers to the upper layers of soil where most plant roots grow.
Q: What is the maximum angle of repose for strong bedrock at which it can be safely inclined and beyond which it will fail?
(A) 90°
(B) 60°
(C) 45°
(D) 30°
Answer: (A) 90°
Explanation: Strong bedrock can theoretically be inclined vertically (90°) without failing, assuming it is intact and unweathered.
Q: Consider the following statements with regard to deciding the performance of masonry buildings in earthquakes:
- The masonry courses from the walls meeting at corners must have good interlocking.
- Openings too close to wall corners hamper the flow of forces from one wall to another.
- It is best to keep all openings as small and far away from the corners as possible.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: All statements correctly describe aspects of masonry building design to improve earthquake performance.
Q: For minimizing the impact of earthquake, which of the following solutions are proposed for L-shape building?
- Separate the wings
- Add collector walls
- Join the wings
- Stiffen the ends
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: Separating wings, adding collector walls, and stiffening ends are effective earthquake-resistant measures.
Q: In the purview of earthquake engineering, the effect of internal friction, imperfect elasticity of material, slipping, sliding, etc. in reducing the amplitude of vibration, is called:
(A) Floor Response Spectra
(B) Liquefaction
(C) Damping
(D) Ductility
Answer: (C) Damping
Explanation: Damping refers to the reduction of vibration amplitude due to energy dissipation from friction and material imperfections.
Q: Which one of the following is NOT suitable building construction method in earthquake prone areas?
(A) Roof with tiles or stone plates
(B) Wattle and daub wall system
(C) Textile walls filled with earth
(D) Adobe walls
Answer: (A) Roof with tiles or stone plates
Explanation: Heavy roofs with tiles or stone plates are not suitable as they can become hazardous during an earthquake.
Q: Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale is used for measuring:
(A) temperature for volcano lava
(B) the intensity of shaking produced by an earthquake
(C) sound intensity of thunder storm
(D) the intensity of flood
Answer: (B) the intensity of shaking produced by an earthquake
Explanation: The MMI scale measures the effects and intensity of shaking during an earthquake.
Q: In World Design Conference, 1960, Fumihiko Maki described three specific modes of urban design as:
(A) Core, Periphery, Suburban
(B) Lattice, Megastructures, Networks
(C) Homogeneous, Lattice, Heterogeneous
(D) Composition, Megastructures, Group form
Answer: (D) Composition, Megastructures, Group form
Explanation: Fumihiko Maki identified these three modes of urban design in his presentation.
Q: Constantinos A Doxiadis prepared the master plan of which one of the following cities?
(A) Baghdad
(B) Karachi
(C) Gandhinagar
(D) Kuwait
Answer: (B) Karachi
Explanation: Doxiadis is known for preparing the master plan for Karachi.
Q: Jane Jacobs argued for repressed minorities and neighborhood protection against the large scaled development of cross-island highway through lower Manhattan to serve the suburbs, was proposed by:
(A) Robert Moses
(B) J.L.Sert
(C) Edward Soja
(D) Rudyard Gulliani
Answer: (A) Robert Moses
Explanation: Robert Moses proposed the cross-island highway, which was opposed by Jane Jacobs.
Q: In Chandigarh, Le Corbusier and his associates designed many of the buildings in sector 17 based on the prototype of:
(A) Maison Domino
(B) Terrace Garden
(C) Maison Arch
(D) Human Body
Answer: (D) Human Body
Explanation: Le Corbusier’s design for Chandigarh was inspired by the concept of the human body.
Q: Urban actor in a city is defined as:
(A) urban ecological system of city for critical and sustainable survival
(B) urban transport which connects the fragmented city together through complex network
(C) large buildings in the city which influence the growth and future patterns of the city
(D) individuals or small or large groups who are active and organized to use and manipulate space in the city
Answer: (D) individuals or small or large groups who are active and organized to use and manipulate space in the city
Explanation: Urban actors are groups or individuals who influence and utilize urban spaces.
Q: In cement manufacturing process, gypsum is added to the clinker to
(A) soften the mixture
(B) retard setting
(C) solidify the mixture
(D) keep moisture
Answer: (B) retard setting
Explanation: Gypsum is added to cement to slow down the setting process, giving more time for mixing and application.
Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in PERT network?
(A) PERT is event based
(B) PERT is frequently used in research and development projects
(C) PERT is preferred for those projects which are of repetitive nature
(D) Probabilistic approach is used by PERT planner
Answer: (C) PERT is preferred for those projects which are of repetitive nature
Explanation: PERT is used for unique, one-time projects rather than repetitive ones.
Q: Under the Indian Contract Act-1872, which section states that “when a contract consists of reciprocal promises to be simultaneously performed, no promiser need perform his promise unless the promisee is ready and willing to perform his reciprocal promise”?
(A) Section – 37
(B) Section – 51
(C) Section – 53
(D) Section – 54
Answer: (B) Section – 51
Explanation: Section 51 of the Indian Contract Act-1872 addresses the performance of reciprocal promises.
Q: In tender documents, under a security deposit subhead, which clause is related to “Payment due to variation in prices of materials after receipt of tenders”?
(A) Clause – 10
(B) Clause – 10 C
(C) Clause – 10 CA
(D) Clause – 10 CC
Answer: (D) Clause – 10 CC
Explanation: Clause 10 CC deals with payment adjustments due to price variations after tender acceptance.
Q: Breach of contract means the failure or refusal to perform the promises that a party has made or deemed to have made under a contract. In this context, which section of the Contract Act provides payment of only reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount named or penalty stipulated?
(A) Section 52
(B) Section 70
(C) Section 20
(D) Section 74
Answer: (D) Section 74
Explanation: Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act covers reasonable compensation for breach of contract.
Q: The establishment of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) are done under
(A) River Boards Act, 1956
(B) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(D) National Environmental Tribunal Act, 1995
Answer: (B) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Explanation: CPCB and SPCB were established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Q: Resources like oxygen, water, food, which constitutes life support comes under
(A) Ecological Services
(B) Government and Public Services
(C) Climate Change Services
(D) International Standard Services
Answer: (A) Ecological Services
Explanation: Ecological services include resources essential for life, such as oxygen, water, and food.
Q: If the outside temperature is 10℃ and the inside temperature is 22℃ over a 10 m² brick wall, having transmittance value of 1.5 W/m² K, what is the heat flow rate?
(A) -120 W
(B) +120 W
(C) +180 W
(D) -180 W
Answer: (C) +180 W
Explanation: The heat flow rate is calculated using the formula: ( \text{Heat flow rate} = \text{Transmittance value} \times \text{Area} \times \Delta T ). Here, ( 1.5 \, \text{W/m²K} \times 10 \, \text{m²} \times (22 – 10) \, \text{K} = 180 \, \text{W} ).
Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for designing shelter for hot-dry climate?
(A) Buildings should have open elongated plan shapes.
(B) Shading of roofs, wall and out-door spaces is critical.
(C) The larger dimensions of a building should preferably face north and south.
(D) An enclosed, compactly planned and essentially inward-looking building is the most suitable.
Answer: (A) Buildings should have open elongated plan shapes.
Explanation: In hot-dry climates, compact and inward-looking designs are more suitable to reduce exposure to heat.
Q: The process of conversion of NO3¯ into N2 by anaerobic bacteria is called
(A) Nitrification
(B) Ammonification
(C) Denitrification
(D) Anammox
Answer: (C) Denitrification
Explanation: Denitrification is the process by which anaerobic bacteria convert nitrates (NO3¯) into nitrogen gas (N2).
Q: Consider the following statements:
- HUDCO is public sector undertaking under Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- RERA scheme is for promoting and regulating the real estate sector.
- PMGSY is launched for the mission of ‘Housing for All’.
- BSUP scheme is for providing ‘Houses for Urban Poor’.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. PMGSY is for rural road development, not housing.
Q: Identify the first sky-scraper building:
(A) Home Insurance Building, Chicago
(B) The Empire State Building, New York
(C) Burj Khalifa, Dubai
(D) Chrysler Building, New York
Answer: (A) Home Insurance Building, Chicago
Explanation: The Home Insurance Building in Chicago, completed in 1885, is considered the first skyscraper.
Q: Consider the following statements:
- Housing demand is the total requirement while housing need is associated with the affordability.
- TDR means achieving additional FAR in lieu of the area surrendered by the owner of the land.
- Housing need is not standard across cultures and other societal groups.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: All statements are correct regarding housing demand, TDR, and housing needs across different cultures.
Q: The housing trend of ‘Expandable Dwelling’ is associated with
(A) Row Housing
(B) Apartment Housing
(C) Core Housing
(D) Detached Housing
Answer: (C) Core Housing
Explanation: Core Housing allows for future expansion by the occupants, making it “expandable.”
Q: As per Kenneth Frampton, which one of the following built-up forms of urban settlement is assumed to be cost effective in terms of land-use and also has many social advantages in terms of services?
(A) high-rise, high-density
(B) high-rise, low-density
(C) low-rise, high-density
(D) low-rise, low-density
Answer: (C) low-rise, high-density
Explanation: Low-rise, high-density developments are seen as cost-effective and socially beneficial.
Q: The antique statue of ‘Herkulanerin’ was first discovered by
(A) Alcubierre
(B) Camillo Paderni
(C) Prince d’Elboeuf
(D) Maria Amalia
Answer: (B) Camillo Paderni
Explanation: Camillo Paderni discovered the statue of ‘Herkulanerin’.
Q: The famous treatise ‘De Architectura’ of classical architecture is written by
(A) Domenico Fantana
(B) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
(C) Michelangelo
(D) Giuliano da Sangallo
Answer: (B) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
Explanation: ‘De Architectura’ was written by the Roman architect Vitruvius.
Q: Which one of the following International organizations is NOT associated with protection of cultural heritage?
(A) ICCROM
(B) ICOMOS
(C) UNESCO
(D) IRCOM
Answer: (D) IRCOM
Explanation: IRCOM is not associated with cultural heritage protection, unlike ICCROM, ICOMOS, and UNESCO.
Q: The famous slogan “Conserve, do not store” is given by
(A) Mynors Charles
(B) Georg Dehio
(C) Robert Garland
(D) David Lowenthal
Answer: (D) David Lowenthal
Explanation: The slogan “Conserve, do not store” is attributed to David Lowenthal.
Q: A master piece of Roman architecture ‘Montecitorio obelisk’ was restored by using
(A) Plain Egyptian red granite of huge monolithic column of Roman Emperor
(B) Reintegrating hieroglyphs
(C) Roman sail with gravels
(D) Egyptian sand and nearby conservation
Answer: (A) Plain Egyptian red granite of huge monolithic column of Roman Emperor
Explanation: The Montecitorio obelisk was restored using plain Egyptian red granite.
Q: Which one of the following is a good example of a successful application of thin film technology in a design context?
(A) Anti-reflection glass
(B) Holographically pattern glass
(C) Dichroic glass
(D) Electro-optical glass
Answer: (A) Anti-reflection glass
Explanation: Anti-reflection glass utilizes thin film technology to reduce glare and reflection, enhancing visibility and clarity.
Q: The airflow of a fan operating at 9000 cfm and 1 inch of water gauge static pressure must be increased to 10500 cfm. The fan operates at 1500 rpm and requires 5 brake horsepower at the rated conditions. What is the new operating speed?
(A) 1450 rpm
(B) 1550 rpm
(C) 1650 rpm
(D) 1750 rpm
Answer: (C) 1650 rpm
Explanation: The fan laws state that airflow is directly proportional to the speed of the fan. Therefore, the new speed is calculated as:
[ \text{New Speed} = \text{Original Speed} \times \left( \frac{\text{New Airflow}}{\text{Original Airflow}} \right) ]
[ \text{New Speed} = 1500 \times \left( \frac{10500}{9000} \right) = 1500 \times 1.1667 \approx 1750 \, \text{rpm} ]
Q: In Building Automation System, ‘Smart Window’ possesses which of the following functions?
- Control of optical transmittance
- Control of thermal transmittance
- Control of thermal absorption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Smart windows can control optical transmittance, thermal transmittance, and thermal absorption, adjusting based on external conditions.
Q: In modern Building Automation System, most of the equipment are based on the technology of
(A) Light amplification by simulation of energy reflection
(B) Light amplification of solar energy and radiation
(C) Layer application for simulation energy and radiation
(D) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
Answer: (D) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
Explanation: Modern building automation systems often incorporate laser technology, which stands for “Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation.”
Q: Ventilation cooling (100 percent untreated outdoor air) can be provided in locations where summer design temperatures are at least
(A) 20ºC cooler than the required outdoor temperature
(B) 10ºC cooler than the required outdoor temperature
(C) 20ºC cooler than the required water temperature
(D) 10ºC cooler than the required indoor ambient temperature
Answer: (D) 10ºC cooler than the required indoor ambient temperature
Explanation: Ventilation cooling is effective when the outdoor temperature is at least 10ºC cooler than the desired indoor temperature.
Q: As per NBC-2016 norms for roads and paths in hilly areas, the street orientation shall preferably be
(A) north – south
(B) north east – south west
(C) east – west
(D) north west – south east
Answer: (C) east – west
Explanation: Orienting streets east-west in hilly areas helps minimize the impact of steep gradients and maximizes solar access.
Q: As per NBC-2016 in case of single room tenements, the carpet area of the multipurpose single room should be at least
(A) 9 m²
(B) 10 m²
(C) 12.5 m²
(D) 15 m²
Answer: (C) 12.5 m²
Explanation: The NBC-2016 specifies a minimum carpet area of 12.5 m² for a multipurpose single room in tenements.
Q: As per National Building Code, for group housing development in an area with a density of 250 Persons per hectare, maximum allowable ground coverage in percentage (%) is
(A) 25
(B) 33
(C) 30
(D) 35
Answer: (D) 35
Explanation: The NBC allows a maximum ground coverage of 35% for group housing developments in areas with a density of 250 persons per hectare.
Q: For new buildings, structures which rise to 30 m or more in height need ‘No-objection certificate’ from the Directorate General of Civil Aviation as per NBC, if the proposed location lies within how much distance of the aerodrome reference point?
(A) 15 km
(B) 20 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 5 km
Answer: (A) 15 km
Explanation: Structures 30 m or taller within 15 km of an aerodrome reference point require a no-objection certificate from the Directorate General of Civil Aviation.
Q: As per National Building Code, the ceiling height of the industrial buildings (except when air conditioned) should be
(A) 3.0 m
(B) 3.6 m
(C) 4.0 m
(D) 4.6 m
Answer: (C) 4.0 m
Explanation: The NBC specifies a minimum ceiling height of 4.0 m for industrial buildings that are not air-conditioned.
Q: Victor Gruen is famously referred to as
(A) inventor of the passenger lift
(B) early designer of ‘mall’ as building type
(C) inventor of H.V.A.C.
(D) inventor of fire safety system in building
Answer: (B) early designer of ‘mall’ as building type
Explanation: Victor Gruen is known for designing the first modern shopping mall.
Q: Durga temple at Aihole, built by Chalukyan builders adopted a plan of
(A) Buddhist chaitya hall
(B) Sanchi stupa
(C) Islamic mosque
(D) Christian church
Answer: (A) Buddhist chaitya hall
Explanation: The Durga temple at Aihole features a plan reminiscent of a Buddhist chaitya hall.
Q: One of the distinctive architectural characters of the Hoysalas of Karnataka is
(A) Chaitya style plan
(B) Star-Shaped plan
(C) Greek style plan
(D) Roman style plan
Answer: (B) Star-Shaped plan
Explanation: Hoysala architecture is known for its distinctive star-shaped plans and intricate carvings.
Q: Which one of the definitions correctly defines the centralized organization in architectural design?
(A) A central space from which linear organizations of space extend in a radial manner.
(B) Spaces grouped by proximity or the sharing of a common visual trait or relationship.
(C) A central, dominant space about which a number of secondary spaces are grouped.
(D) Spaces organized within the field of a structural grid or other three-dimensional framework.
Answer: (C) A central, dominant space about which a number of secondary spaces are grouped.
Explanation: A centralized organization features a dominant central space with secondary spaces grouped around it.
Q: Le Corbusier developed his proportioning system, the Modulor, to order “the dimensions of that which contains and that which is contained”. The basic grid consists of three measures proportioned according to the Golden Section. They are
(A) 114 cm, 71 cm, 44 cm
(B) 113 cm, 70 cm, 43 cm
(C) 112 cm, 89 cm, 42 cm
(D) 111 cm, 88 cm, 41 cm
Answer: (D) 111 cm, 88 cm, 41 cm
Explanation: Le Corbusier’s Modulor system is based on the dimensions 111 cm, 88 cm, and 41 cm, proportioned according to the Golden Section.
Q: Which one of the following does NOT represent a visual art movement?
(A) Impressionism
(B) Cezanne
(C) Minimalism
(D) Prism
Answer: (D) Prism
Explanation: Prism is not a visual art movement; it is related to optics, while Impressionism, Minimalism, and Cezanne (referring to the artist Paul Cezanne) are associated with visual art movements.
Q: Who wrote the book “De Coloribus” and established that all colors were derived from different mixtures of sunlight, firelight, air and water?
(A) Newton
(B) Da Vinci
(C) Aristotle
(D) Le Blen & Harris
Answer: (C) Aristotle
Explanation: Aristotle wrote “De Coloribus,” exploring the derivation of colors from mixtures of sunlight, firelight, air, and water.
Q: Which one of the following is NOT an example of basic design ordering principles?
(A) Symmetry
(B) Datum
(C) Rhythm
(D) Scale
Answer: (B) Datum
Explanation: Datum is not a basic design ordering principle, whereas symmetry, rhythm, and scale are fundamental principles in design.
Q: The study of the symbolic and communicative role of the spatial separation individuals maintain in various social and interpersonal situations, and how the nature and degree of this spatial arrangement relates to environmental and cultural factors is called
(A) pylon
(B) propylon
(C) proxemics
(D) propylaeum
Answer: (C) proxemics
Explanation: Proxemics is the study of personal space and spatial separation in social and cultural contexts.
Q: Who developed one of the first full-color circles
, which spaced the primaries at equal distances from one another?
(A) Munsell
(B) Moses Harris
(C) Goethe
(D) Le Blon
Answer: (B) Moses Harris
Explanation: Moses Harris developed one of the first full-color circles, spacing the primary colors at equal distances.
Q: Radiance software can be used for
(A) thermal comfort in a building
(B) structural design for high rise building
(C) acoustical measurement for a building
(D) lighting simulation of interior spaces
Answer: (D) lighting simulation of interior spaces
Explanation: Radiance is a suite of programs for the analysis and visualization of lighting in design.
Q: Which commands are NOT used in AutoCAD?
(A) UCSICON and MATCHPROP
(B) DXFOUT and MLEADER
(C) TURNOVER and DRAWORDER
(D) DRAWORDER and DXFIN
Answer: (C) TURNOVER and DRAWORDER
Explanation: “TURNOVER” is not a command in AutoCAD, while the others are legitimate AutoCAD commands.
Q: In ‘Sketch up’, moving the time slider back and forth, for shadow setting indicates
(A) moving sun and moon around in the sky
(B) moving sun around in the sky
(C) moving moon around in the sky
(D) moving artificial lights around in the sky
Answer: (B) moving sun around in the sky
Explanation: The time slider in SketchUp is used to simulate the movement of the sun to study shadows.
Q: To display one or more scaled views of your design on a standard-size drawing sheet is called
(A) layers
(B) layouts
(C) blocks
(D) geometry
Answer: (B) layouts
Explanation: Layouts are used in AutoCAD to create scaled views of the design for printing on standard-size sheets.
Q: In AutoCAD, Precision feature which specifies a location by its Cartesian, either absolute or relative is
(A) Polar tracking
(B) Locking angles
(C) Grid snaps
(D) Coordinate entry
Answer: (D) Coordinate entry
Explanation: Coordinate entry specifies locations using Cartesian coordinates.
Q: Difference between the readings of wet-bulb thermometer and dry-bulb thermometer is called
(A) Variable depression
(B) Wet-bulb depression
(C) Dry-bulb depression
(D) Atmospheric depression
Answer: (B) Wet-bulb depression
Explanation: Wet-bulb depression is the difference between the dry-bulb and wet-bulb temperatures.
Q: Operative temperature scale was developed by
(A) Bedford, Harris
(B) C G Webb, Givoni
(C) Winslow, Herrington, Gagge
(D) Missenard, Otto Koenisberger
Answer: (C) Winslow, Herrington, Gagge
Explanation: The operative temperature scale was developed by Winslow, Herrington, and Gagge.
Q: The amount of moisture actually present in unit mass or unit volume of air, in terms of gramme per kilogramme (g/kg) or gramme per cubic meter (g/m3) is called
(A) atmospheric humidity
(B) absolute humidity
(C) relative humidity
(D) saturation point humidity
Answer: (B) absolute humidity
Explanation: Absolute humidity is the total amount of moisture in the air regardless of temperature.
Q: Assume that the outdoor temperature is 18 ℃, the indoor temperature has risen to 28 ℃ and there is an internal heat gain of 5 kW, which would cause a further increase of indoor temperature. What is the rate of ventilation? (Assume the specific heat of air as 1300 J/ m2ºC)
(A) 0.485 m2/s
(B) 0.385 m2/s
(C) 0.285 m2/s
(D) 0.185 m2/s
Answer: (A) 0.485 m2/s
Explanation: The rate of ventilation can be calculated using the heat balance equation.
Q: The intensity of radiation reaching the upper surface of the atmosphere is taken as the Solar Constant 1395 W/m2, but it actually varies due to variations in the output of the sun itself and also due to changes in the earth-sun distance. What is the percentage variation in both cases respectively?
(A) ±3.5 %, ± 2 %
(B) ±3.5 %, ±1 %
(C) ±2 %, ± 1 %
(D) ±2 %, ± 3.5 %
Answer: (C) ±2 %, ± 1 %
Explanation: The solar constant varies by these percentages due to changes in solar output and Earth-Sun distance.
Q: A mixing of Romano-Greek and Indian motifs in architecture/sculpture is called
(A) Gandhara style
(B) Ashoka style
(C) Islamic style
(D) Mauryan style
Answer: (A) Gandhara style
Explanation: The Gandhara style is known for its blend of Greek, Roman, and Indian art elements.
Q: In architectural design theory, synectics is referred to as
(A) a study of synergy between various building materials
(B) a study of creative processes involving free use of metaphor and analogy
(C) a study of visual aesthetics of a building
(D) a study of processes in sequence to understand the construction techniques in buildings
Answer: (B) a study of creative processes involving free use of metaphor and analogy
Explanation: Synectics is a problem-solving methodology that uses analogies and metaphors.
Q: In the purview of social comprehension and assimilation architecture, who said this “A society can be defined as a group of individuals competing for conventional prizes by conventional means”?
(A) V.C. Wynne – Edwards
(B) Stuart Altmann
(C) Manfredo Tafuri
(D) Terence Hawkes
Answer: (D) Terence Hawkes
Explanation: This quote relates to the social structure and behavior studied by Terence Hawkes.
Q: The Angkor Vat in Cambodia, is culmination of which one of the following concepts of the Buddhist planning?
(A) Dwiratna
(B) Charbagh
(C) Nagara
(D) Pancharatna
Answer: (D) Pancharatna
Explanation: Angkor Wat reflects the Pancharatna concept, a layout with five sanctuaries.
Q: Who authored “The Seven Lamps of Architecture”?
(A) John Ruskin
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Paul Horwich
(D) William James
Answer: (A) John Ruskin
Explanation: John Ruskin wrote “The Seven Lamps of Architecture.”
Q: In building acoustics, the function of an acoustical cloud is
(A) reflecting the sound from ceiling for improving the acoustic quality of music
(B) absorbing the white noise from the source
(C) creating the echo within the given space
(D) creating a new sound by absorbing the noise from surrounding
Answer: (A) reflecting the sound from ceiling for improving the acoustic quality of music
Explanation: Acoustical clouds are used to reflect and direct sound for better acoustic performance.
Q: The time in seconds required for a sound made in an enclosed space to diminish by 60 dB is called
(A) Decay rate
(B) Interference
(C) Reverberation time
(D) Metric sabin
Answer: (C) Reverberation time
Explanation: Reverberation time measures how long it takes for sound to decay in an enclosed space.
Q: If two sounds differ by 20 dB, the louder of them is 100 times more intense and when they differ by 30 dB, the louder of them would be
(A) 20 times more intense
(B) 150 times more intense
(C) 1000 times more intense
(D) 200 times more intense
Answer: (C) 1000 times more intense
Explanation: A 30 dB difference corresponds to a 1000 times intensity difference.
Q: The sound which is transmitted first through the structure is called
(A) Structure sound
(B) Airborne sound
(C) Impact sound
(D) Transfer sound
Answer: (C) Impact sound
Explanation: Impact sound is the noise transmitted through the building structure, typically from physical impacts.
Q: The ratio of transmitted sound power and the power incident on the surface is called
(A) Transmission index
(B) Transmission factor
(C) Sound incident index
(D) Sound incident factor
Answer: (B) Transmission factor
Explanation: The transmission factor is the ratio of transmitted sound power to incident sound power.
Q: Who wrote the book “Complexity and Contradiction” in Architecture?
(A) Robert Venturi
(B) Bernhard Tschumi
(C) Bruno Zevi
(D) Gordon Cullen
Answer: (A) Robert Venturi
Explanation: Robert Venturi is the author of “Complexity and Contradiction in Architecture,” a foundational text in postmodern architectural theory.
Q: Radburn city in USA was planned by
(A) Clarence Stein
(B) Ebenezor Howard
(C) Patrick Geddes
(D) Patrick Abercrombie
Answer: (A) Clarence Stein
Explanation: Radburn city was planned by Clarence Stein and Henry Wright as a model for a “garden city.”
Q: Which one of the following terms was used by Dutch architectural group ‘MVRDV’ to describe a city formed from information?
(A) Megacity
(B) Metacity
(C) Beta city
(D) Invisible city
Answer: (B) Metacity
Explanation: MVRDV used the term “Metacity” to describe a city shaped by data and information.
Q: What is the cost of brickwork and plastering work on both sides, respectively for the wall of 4 m long, 3 m high and 30 cm thick, if the rate of brickwork is Rs. 320 per cubic metre and plastering Rs. 8.50 per square metre?
(A) Rs. 1150, Rs. 200
(B) Rs. 1152, Rs. 204
(C) Rs. 1150, Rs. 204
(D) Rs. 1152, Rs. 200
Answer: (D) Rs. 1152, Rs. 200
Explanation:
Cost of brickwork = 4m x 3m x 0.3m x Rs. 320/m³ = Rs. 1152
Cost of plastering = 2 sides x 4m x 3m x Rs. 8.50/m² = Rs. 204
So, the total cost is Rs. 1152 and Rs. 204.
Q: Which of the following methods are predominantly used for the detailed estimation of quantities of various items of a building in the construction process?
(A) Long & short wall method and Centre line method
(B) Centre line method and Plinth area method
(C) Plinth area method and Cubical method
(D) Long & short wall method and Cubical method
Answer: (A) Long & short wall method and Centre line method
Explanation: These methods are commonly used for detailed quantity estimation in building construction.
Q: Which valuation method out of the following options can be adopted when the rental value is not available from the property concerned, but there are evidences of sale price of the property as a whole for fixing the capitalized value?
(A) Valuation based on profit
(B) Valuation based on cost
(C) Valuation based on depreciation
(D) Direct comparison with the capital value
Answer: (D) Direct comparison with the capital value
Explanation: When rental value is unavailable, direct comparison with the capital value of similar properties is used.
Q: If the brick size is 20 cm × 10 cm ×10 cm, how many bricks required for brick floor to cover 100 sqm floor area?
(A) 5000
(B) 4000
(C) 3500
(D) 5500
Answer: (A) 5000
Explanation:
Floor area covered by one brick = 0.2m x 0.1m = 0.02m²
Number of bricks for 100m² = 100m² / 0.02m² = 5000 bricks
Q: The fund which is gradually accumulated by way of periodic deposit for the replacement of a building at the end of its useful life is called
(A) Life cycle fund
(B) Salvage fund
(C) Sinking fund
(D) Capitalized fund
Answer: (C) Sinking fund
Explanation: A sinking fund is set aside over time to replace or repair buildings or equipment.
Q: Central Place Theory was proposed by
(A) Walter Miles
(B) Walter Gropius
(C) Walter Christaller
(D) Walter Benjamin
Answer: (C) Walter Christaller
Explanation: Central Place Theory was proposed by the German geographer Walter Christaller.
Q: In physical planning, the Concept of Saturation Flow is associated with
(A) Temperature flow
(B) Traffic flow
(C) Wind flow
(D) Electricity flow
Answer: (B) Traffic flow
Explanation: Saturation flow relates to the maximum rate of traffic that can pass through an intersection.
Q: In alternative systems for sanitation and sewage, UASB (Dutch Technology) stands for
(A) Urban Anaerobic Sludge Blanket
(B) Urban Aerobic Sludge Blanket
(C) Up-flow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket
(D) Up-flow Aerobic Sludge Blanket
Answer: (C) Up-flow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket
Explanation: UASB stands for Up-flow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket, a type of wastewater treatment.
Q: According to WHO standards, the number of hospital beds recommended for per 1000 population in urban areas is
(A) 3 hospital beds
(B) 4 hospital beds
(C) 5 hospital beds
(D) 6 hospital beds
Answer: (B) 4 hospital beds
Explanation: WHO recommends a minimum of 4 hospital beds per 1000 population in urban areas.
Q: Cul-de-sac is associated with
(A) Dead end
(B) Central Island
(C) Sectoral Planning
(D) Intersection
Answer: (A) Dead end
Explanation: A cul-de-sac is a street or passage closed at one end.
Q: The Council of Architecture has adopted nine ‘Conditions of Engagement’ to maintain the highest standards of practice and conduct. Indicate which factor out of the following does NOT come under the Conditions of Engagement.
(A) Remuneration
(B) Interpretation
(C) Responsibilities
(D) Indemnification
Answer: (B) Interpretation
Explanation: Interpretation is not listed as a condition of engagement by the Council of Architecture.
Q: Consider the following circumstances with regard to Architects Professional Guidelines:
- Use of building for the purposes other than for which it has been designed.
- Modifications to the building carried out by the owner without the consent of the Architect who designed.
- Damages caused due to any reasons arising out of specialized consultants, who were engaged in consultation with client.
- Any compromise with the safety norms by the architect.
In which of the above circumstances Architect is NOT liable?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The architect is not liable for unauthorized use, owner modifications without consent, or damages due to specialized consultants.
Q: Under which section of the Architects Act 1972, if an architect is found guilty of professional misconduct, he/she is liable for disciplinary action by the Council of Architecture?
(A) Section – 30
(B) Section – 53
(C) Section – 35
(D) Section – 20
Answer: (C) Section – 35
Explanation: Section 35 of the Architects Act 1972 deals with disciplinary action for professional misconduct.
Q: As per the Architects Regulation (Professional Conduct) 1989, an architect may exhibit his name outside his/her office and on a building either under construction or completed, for which he/she is/was an Architect, provided the lettering does not exceed in height more than
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 10 cm
Answer: (D) 10 cm
Explanation: The regulation specifies that the lettering should not exceed 10 cm in height.
Q: For conducting an Architectural competition, the guidelines are framed by Council of Architecture based on Architecture Competition Rule formed by International Union of Architects on behalf of
(A) UNESCO
(B) ASI
(C) INTACH
(D) WHO
Answer: (A) UNESCO
Explanation: The guidelines are framed by the Council of Architecture based on rules by the International Union of Architects (UIA) on behalf of UNESCO.